I had used meth 8 hours prior to the incident. I wasn't euphoric, but was kind of wired and jittery. My theory is that the incident may have happened because, while under the influence of meth, I was unable to feel pain and therefore did not withdrawl from the activity when I should have.
So my question is: does meth inhibit pain? If so, does it inhibit pain to a sufficient degree to allow users to really mess themselves up? And would it do so 8 hours after the use?
I only used meth 3 times in my life so i'm kind of naive... it really stresses me out to think that I !*$$$% up my life so much from using meth on one of only three occasions.